Posted 09 April 2004 - 03:13 PM
Was the Anschluss (between Germany and Austria-Hungary) dictated in the Treaty of Versailles (as it seems to be according to many websites) or in the Treat Of St Germain?
How could the German's hate it if it wasn't in the Treaty of Versailles?
Posted 09 April 2004 - 04:07 PM
The Treaty of St Germain dealt with Austria and the breakup of the Austro-Hungarian Empire - so was also relevant, the Treaty of St. German, also forbade union between Austria and Germany. It refers to the Treaty of Versailles frequently - such as about the reparations to be paid. Thus, what is is the Treaty of Versailles also covers what is in St Germain.
For your exam, it is best to say that any union between Germany and Austria was banned by the Treaty of Versailles.
Posted 09 April 2004 - 07:07 PM
Treaty of Versailles - ARTICLE 80
Germany acknowledges and will respect strictly the independence of Austria, within the frontiers which may be fixed in a Treaty between that State and the Principal Allied and Associated Powers; she agrees that this independence shall be inalienable, except with the consent of the Council of the League of Nations.
Treaty of St Germain - ARTICLE 88
The independence of Austria is inalienable otherwise than with the consent of the Council of the League of Nations. Consequently Austria undertakes in the absence of the consent of the said Council to abstain from any act which might directly or indirectly or by any means whatever compromise her independence, particularly, and until her admission to membership of the League of Nations, by participation in the affairs of another Power.
This is obviou when you think about it. The Treaty of Versailles was the template of all the treaties of peace 1919-20, and one of the first thing each treaty did was to apply its provisions.
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